WELCOME TO THE TESTING GROUND

Where Practice Begins to succeed

Polity Test 1

S No	Topics	Questions
1	Historical Background	5
2	Making of the Constitution	5
3	Salient Features of the Constitution	5
	Total	15

1 / 15

The members of the Constituent Assembly were:

Elected by the Legislatures of various Provinces and nominated by the rulers of the princely states.

Directly elected by the people.

Nominated by the Congress and the Muslim League.

Nominated by the Governor-General.

2 / 15

Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India?

Written Constitution and supremacy of the Constitution

Committed Judiciary

Quasi-federal structure

Distribution of Powers

3 / 15

Consider the following statements:

1. Under the Government of India Act, 1919, the Indian Legislature was made more representative and for the first time bicameral.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935, prescribed a federation taking the Provinces and the Indian States as units.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Both 1 and 2

1 only

2 only

Neither 1 nor 2

4 / 15

Which of the following provisions in the Constitution of India has been adopted from USA?

Parliamentary System

Fundamental Rights

Directive Principles of State Policy

Emergency Provisions

5 / 15

In the Federation established by the Act, 1935, residuary powers were given to the:

Federal Legislature

Provincial Governor

Provincial Legislature

Governor-General

6 / 15

The Government of India Act, 1919, was based upon:

Montague-Chelmsford Report

Ramsay McDonald Award

Morley-Minto Reforms

Nehru Report

7 / 15

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Indian Councils Act, 1892 : Principle of Election

Indian Councils Act, 1909 : Responsible Government

Government of India Act, 1919 : Provincial Autonomy

Government of India Act, 1935 : Dyarchy in States

8 / 15

Consider the following statements:

The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide for:

1. Single citizenship for the whole of India.
2. Strictly federal form of government.
3. Unique blend of rigidity and flexibility.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

9 / 15

Which one of the following Acts provided the setting up of the Board of Control in Britain, through which the British Government could fully control the British East India Company's civil, military and revenue affairs in India?

Charter Act, 1833

Government of India Act, 1858

Regulating Act, 1773

Pitt's India Act, 1784

10 / 15

Consider the following statements related to secularism in India:

1. It entails strict separation of religion from politics.

2.It bans parties with religious affiliations from contesting elections.

3. It grants religious liberty to all communities.

4. It accepts community personal laws.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

3 and 4

1 and 2 only

11 / 15

1. Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Constituent Assembly:

1. The representatives were to be elected from the four constituents-Hindu, Muslim, Sikh and Christian.

2. The chairman of the Union Constitution Committee was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

3. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was 389.

4. The Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar consisted of eight members.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 only

1, 2 and 4

1, 2, 3 and 4

1 only

12 / 15

The Constitution of India as framed by the Constituent Assembly was finally adopted and enacted on:

26th November, 1949

15th August, 1947

26th January, 1950

30th January, 1948

13 / 15

What was the procedure followed for the adoption of the Constitution of India?

It was submitted to the people of India for ratification.

It was adopted when the Interim Government approved it.

It was submitted to the Governor-General for his assent.

It was adopted when it received the signature of the President and the Members of the Constituent Assembly.

14 / 15

Consider the following statements:
1. Tiger was adopted as the symbol (seal) of the Constituent Assembly.
2. Prem Behari Narain Raizada was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

Both 1 and 2

2 only

15 / 15

Which one of the following members of the Constituent Assembly made the following comment on the foreign nature of the Indian Constitution?

"We wanted the music of veena or sitar, but here we have the music of the English band."

H.V. Kamath

P.R. Deshmukh

Lakshminarayan Sahu

K. Hanumanthaiya

Your score is

Polity Test 2

S No	Topics	Questions
1	Preamble of the Constitution	5
2	Union and its Territory	5
3	Citizenship	5
	Total	15

1 / 15

Consider the following statements:

1. Originally, the Citizenship Act, 1955, also provided for the Commonwealth Citizenship.
2. The provision for Commonwealth Citizenship was repealed by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

2 / 15

What is the correct chronological order in which the following States of the Indian Union were created or granted full statehood?

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Nagaland
3. Maharashtra
4. Haryana

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

3, 1, 4, 2

1, 3, 2, 4

3, 1, 2, 4

1, 3, 4, 2

3 / 15

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is:

Not a part of the Constitution..

A part of the Constitution but it neither confers any powers nor imposes any duties nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution.

A part of the Constitution and it confers powers and imposes duties as any other provisions of the Constitution.

A part of the Constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in cases of ambiguity.

4 / 15

17. Consider the following words

A. Socialist
B. Democratic
C. Sovereign
D. Secular

Choose the response that gives the correct order in which these words occur in the Preamble.

C, D, A and B

C, D, B and A

C, A, D and B

D. A. C and B

5 / 15

Which of the following provisions pertaining to citizenship is contained in Article 9 of the Constitution?

Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution

Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan

Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens

Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan

6 / 15

Consider the following statements:

The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide for:

1. Single citizenship for the whole of India.
2. Strictly federal form of government.
3. Unique blend of rigidity and flexibility.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

7 / 15

In the Indian Constitution, the word 'we' appears In the Preamble which, in fact, Means

the members of the Constituent Assembly

the people of India

the elected institutions of the country

the people of England

8 / 15

The term "economic justice" in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, is a resolution for:

cheap justice to the poor.

socio-economic revolution.

economy in the administration of justice.

equal distribution of wealth.

9 / 15

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reads

We, the citizens of India-adopt, enact and give to ourselves the Constitution

We, the people of India- adopt, enact and give to our Constituent Assembly this Constitution

We, the citizens of India-adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution

We, the people of India-- and give to ourselves this Constitu- tion

10 / 15

The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B and C in the year 1950. In this context, which of the following statements is correct?

The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category C states.

The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of category C states.

The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of the category C states.

The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category C states.

11 / 15

Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries of any existing State of India.
2. A Bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of India can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and only on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

2 only

12 / 15

The Parliament of India passed the States Reorganisation Act in 1956 to create:

16 States and 3 Union Territories

15 States and 5 Union Territories

24 States and 9 Union Territories

14 States and 6 Union Territories

13 / 15

Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India?

1. By birth
2. By descent
3. By registration
4. By nationalisation
5. By incorporation of territory

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1, 2, 3 and 5

3, 4 and 5

1 and 2 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

14 / 15

The boundary of a State in India can be altered through the procedure laid down in:

Article 3

Article 368

Article 70

Article 130

15 / 15

Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India?

Article 9

Article 10

Article 7

Article 8

Your score is

Polity Test 3

S No	Topics	Questions
1	Fundamental Rights	10
	Total	10

1 / 10

In Indian Constitution, the power to issue a writ of "Habeas Corpus" is vested only in:

The Subordinate Courts

The Supreme Court and the High Courts

The High Courts

The Supreme Court

2 / 10

Which of the following writs is related to the trial of the right to a title or elective office?

Writ of injunction

Writ of certiorari

Writ of quo-warranto

Writ of mandamus

3 / 10

The scope of "life and personal liberty", as envisaged in Article 21 of the Constitution of India, has expanded considerably over the years. Which one of the following can still not be subject of this protection?

The Right of a bonded labour to rehabilitation after release

The Right to livelihood by means which are not illegal, immoral or opposed to public policy

The Right, under a settlement, to claim bonus or dearness allowance

The Right to good health

4 / 10

Which of the following features restrict the authority of Parliament in India?
1. A written Constitution clearly prescribes its scope of operation.
2. The Supreme Court can strike down a law passed by Parliament if it contravenes any of the Constitutional provisions.
3. Parliament is limited by the incorportation of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution.

None as Parliament is sovereign in India

II only

I and III

I, II and III

5 / 10

'Judicial Review' function of the Supreme Court means the power to: [RRB 1994]

examine the constitutional validity of the laws

undertake periodic review of the Constitution

review its own judgement

review the functioning of judiciary in the country

6 / 10

Which of the following provisions is contained in the cultural and education rights?

Liberty of thought and expression

Freedom of speech and expression

Making special provision for women and children

Protection of interests of minorities

7 / 10

Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. Ambedkar as "the heart and the soul" of Constitution?

Right to constitutional remedies

Right to freedom of religion

Right to equality

Right against exploitation

8 / 10

The High Court enjoys the power:
I. to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
II. to exercise superintendence over the working of courts and tribunals under its jurisdiction.
III. to make general rules and prescribe forms regulating the practices and proceeding of courts under its jurisdiction.

I, II and III

I and II

I and III

II and III

9 / 10

As far as the Armed Forces are concerned, the Fundamental Rights granted under Articles 14 and 19 of Constitution are:

Available only at the discretion of the Chief of the Army staff

Available to the Armed Forces but not to other forces

Not available at all

Available only according to law made by the Parliament

10 / 10

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Article 22 : Safeguards under Preventive Detention

Article 20 : Immunity from double punishment

Article 15 : Special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes

Article 16 : Discrimination in favour of women in service under the State

Your score is

Polity Test 4

S No	Topics	Questions
1	Directive Principle Of State Policy	5
3	Fundamental Duties	5
	Total	10

1 / 10

The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were provided by :

an amendment of the Constiution

a judgement of the Supreme Court

a Legislation adopted by the Parliament

an order issued by the President

2 / 10

The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to

lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels

promote welfare of the backward sections of the society

check the use of arbitrary powers by the government

implement Gandhiji's idea for a decentralized state

3 / 10

Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to
non-citizens?

Right to constitutional remedies

Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country

Freedom to acquire property

Freedom to speech

4 / 10

Consider the following statements:

1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. Article 44 of the Constitution of India provides for promotion of cottage industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 only

1 only

Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

5 / 10

Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?

Promotion of cottage industries

Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

Uniform civil code for all citizens

Separation of Judiciary from Executive

6 / 10

Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the recommendations of:

Sarkaria Committee

Swaran Singh Committee

Santhanam Committee

Indira Gandhi Committee

7 / 10

The total number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is :

8 / 10

Which of the following duties have been prescribed by the Indian Constitution as the Fundamental Duties?

1. To defend the country
2. To pay income tax
3. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
4. To safeguard public property

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

2 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

1 and 2 only

9 / 10

The Fundamental Duties:
I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment.
II. are incorporated in Part Ill-A.
III. are not justiciable.

I and III

I and II

III only

II and III

10 / 10

Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy?

To develop the scientific temper

To promote economic interests of weaker sections

To raise the level of nutrition

To separate the Judiciary from the Executive

Your score is

Polity Test 5

S No	Topics	Questions
1	Parliamentary System	5
2	Parliament	15
	Total	20

1 / 20

Who, among the following, expressed the view that the Indian Constitution is federal in as much as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity?

K.C. Wheare

B.R. Ambedkar

H.M. Seervai

Ivor Jennings

2 / 20

The concentration of powers is an essential feature of:

Cabinet Government

Presidential Government

Federal Government

Unitary Government

3 / 20

When an Ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, it has to be passed by a:

two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting.

simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting.

two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both the Houses.

simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses.

4 / 20

Which one of the following statements holds good in respect of the Rajya Sabha?

Two-thirds of its members retire after every three years.

One-third of its members retire after every three years.

Two-thirds of its members retire after every two years.

One-third of its members retire after every two years.

5 / 20

Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains the three lists that divide powers between the Union and the sates?

Seventh Schedule

Fifth Schedule

Sixth Schedule

Eighth Schedule

6 / 20

Which one of the following is true of the Appropriation Act?

Authorisation by the Parliament for withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund.

It is the demand for grants approved by the Parliament.

Authorisation by the Parliament for withdrawal of money from the Contingency Fund.

It applies to approval of the budget by the Parliament.

7 / 20

Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list provided it is in the:

Interest of the State concerned

National interest

Interest of the minority

Interest of the public

8 / 20

The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by:

elected members of the Rajya Sabha.

all members of the Rajya Sabha.

elected members of the Parliament.

all members of the Parliament.

9 / 20

Which of the following are correct about the contingency fund of India?

1. It was created under the provisions of the Article 267.
2. It was created in 1951.
3. It is held by the Finance Secretary on behalf of the President.
4. Its amount will be determined by the President.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 4

1 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

10 / 20

Which one of the following statements is correct?

The estimates which relate to expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India:

cannot be discussed in any House of the Parliament.

can be discussed in the House of the People only.

can be discussed in the Council of the States only.

can be discussed in either House of the Parliament.

11 / 20

The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in
that India has:

the system of judicial review

bicameral legislature

both a real and a nominal executive

a system of collective responsibility

12 / 20

While discussing a budget, the Parliament cannot:

The matter is urgent.

give assent to the demand.

refuse the demand.

increase the demand.

13 / 20

In the context of the budget, the term "guillotine" is used with reference to which of the following?

Finance Bill

Consolidated Fund charges

Voting of Demands

Appropriation Bill

14 / 20

Demands for grants can emanate only from:

the Executive.

the leader of the Opposition.

the Chairman of the Estimates Committee.

any member who is not a member of the ruling party.

15 / 20

A Money Bill deals with:

1. the receipt of money on account of the public account of India.
2. giving any guarantee by the Government of India for borrowing of money.
3. custody of Consolidated Fund of India.
4. withdrawal of money from Contingency Fund of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1, 2, 3 and 4

1 and 2 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4

16 / 20

Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the sessions for:

90 days

30 days

120 days

60 days

17 / 20

Who among the following chooses a member of the Council of States to be its Deputy Chairman?

The Prime Minister

The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

The President

The Council of States

18 / 20

If a member of either House of the Parliament is, without the permission of the House, absent from all meetings thereof for more than a certain period, the House may declare his seat vacant. What is the duration of this period?

30 days

45 days

15 days

60 days

19 / 20

The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by :

Rupee one

Rupees one hundred

A specified amount

An unspecified amount

20 / 20

The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is

One-tenth of the' total number of members of the House

One-twelfth of the .total number of members of the House

Two-third of the total number of members of the House

One-sixth of the total number of members of the House

Your score is

Polity Test 5 (II)

S No	Topics	Questions
1	Parliamentary System	5
2	Parliament	15
	Total	20

1 / 20

He cannot send messages to either House of the Parliament or summon the Houses of the Parliament.

Presides over joint sittings of both the Houses of the Parliament

Can be a member of the Parliament

Cannot stand for election for more than two terms

Can be a member of the Parliament

2 / 20

Consider the following statements:

1. When the President of India is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.
2. An election to fill a vacancy in the office of the President of India occurring because of his death, resignation or removal or otherwise shall be held in no case later than nine months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Neither 1 nor 2

2 only

1 only

Both 1 and 2

3 / 20

In normal times, the Union Parliament:

can legislate on any item in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect by 2/3rd majority

cannot legislate on any item in the State List

can legislate on any item in the State List if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution to that effect by 2/3rd majority

can legislate on any item in the State List if the President so desires

4 / 20

Consider the following statements:

1. An ordinance can be issued by the President only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws.
2. An ordinance issued by the President is not subject to the same constitutional limitation as an Act of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

5 / 20

Which country's opposition won recent parliamentary elections ending 8 years of populist rule?

Czech Republic

Poland

Hungary

Slovakia

Poland's liberal opposition, led by Donald Tusk, achieved a historic parliamentary majority in recent elections, ending eight years of populist rule. The victory was seen as a repudiation of the Law and Justice (PiS) party's conservative and nationalist policies.

6 / 20

By 'charged' expenditure is meant:

expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India which is non-votable

expenditure incurred for which payment is pending

the sum required to meet all expenditure proposed to be made from the Consolidated Fund of India

expenditure that the President can incur without Parliament's approval

7 / 20

The representation to States in the Rajya Sabha is given on the basis of:

an equal number of seats to each State

in proportion to their size

in accordance with their resources

in proportion to their population

8 / 20

The Parliament legislates on a State subject if:

I. the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority that to do so is in the national inter
II. during times of Emergency.
Ill. when the legislatives of two or more States resolve that it is lawful for Parliament to do so.
IV. a treaty or international agreement has to be implemented.

I, III and IV

II and III

I, II, III and IV

I, II and III

9 / 20

A joint sitting may be called:
I. only in case of national emergency.
II. to enable a Constitutional Amendment to be passed in a hurry.
III. when taxes approved by one House are rejected by the other.

II and III

I, II and III

None of these

I and III

10 / 20

Consider the following statements:

The President of India has the power to address both the Houses of the Parliament at the commencement of:

1. the first session after the general elections.
2. each session.
3. the first session of each year.
4. the budget session of each year.

Which of these are correct?

1 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

11 / 20

Which one of the following statements is correct?

On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill after its passing by each House of the Parliament, the President:

May withhold his assent

May give his assent

Shall give his assent

May return the Bill for reconsideration

12 / 20

With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct?

The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill

The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement

A money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha

The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants

13 / 20

Which country recently held its first Parliamentary Election under Emir Sheikh Meshal?

Kuwait

Qatar

Bahrain

Oman

Kuwait held its first election under Emir Sheikh Meshal, focusing on economic reforms amidst government-parliament deadlock. This election is significant as Kuwait aims to address fiscal challenges and reduce reliance on oil revenue.

14 / 20

3. Under a cabinet form of government, the cabinet generally remains in office:

(b) So long as it enjoys the confidence of the popular chamber of Legislature

(a) For a fixed term

(d) So long as it enjoys the confidence of the electorate

15 / 20

The Constitution of India does not mention the post of:

the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies

the Deputy Prime Minister

the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16 / 20

The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of:

President

Ministry of Human Affairs

Speaker of Lok Sabha

Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

17 / 20

4. In the parliamentary form of government, the members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to:

(a) The Head of State

(d) The Prime Minister

(b) The Chairman of the Upper House and the Speaker of the Lower House

18 / 20

Who among the following has the final power to maintain order within the House of
People ?

Chief of Security Staff

Marshal of the House

Speaker

Prime Minister

19 / 20

21. Consider the following statements:

Parliament may make law on a subject enumerated in State List only if the:

1. President deems it proper that such law is necessary for all the States.
2. Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 is in operation.
3. Lok Sabha passes a resolution by 2nd/3rd majority of its total membership.
4. Governor of the State requests the President for such legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3 only

3 and 4 only

1 and 4 only

2 only

20 / 20

1. Which of the following are the principles on the basis of which the parliamentary system of government in India operates?
1. Nominal Executive Head
2. Vice-President as the Chairman of the Upper House
3. Real executive authority with the Council of Ministers
4. Executive responsibility to the Lower House

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Your score is

Polity Test 6

S No	Topics	Questions
1	Parliamentary System	5
2	Centre-State Relations	5
3	Prime Minister	5
2	Central Council of Ministers	5
	Total	20

1 / 20

In which of the following years, the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations submitted it's report?

1988

1989

1986

1887

2 / 20

Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not correctly matched?

Local Governments : Residuary Powers

Central Government : Union List

State Governments : State List

Central and State Governments : Concurrent List

3 / 20

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India:

1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India and for the allocation among the Ministers of the said business.

2. If the President so requires to submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 only

Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

1 only

4 / 20

Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains the three lists that divide powers between the Union and the sates?

Seventh Schedule

Sixth Schedule

Eighth Schedule

Fifth Schedule

5 / 20

Consider the following statements:
1. In extraordinary circumstances, the normal distribution of power between the Centre and the States is either suspended or the powers of the Union Parliament are extended over the state subjects.
2. The Indian Constitution vests the residuary power in the Union Parliament and the final decision as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is that of the Supreme Court.
3. The Union Government has the power to give directions to the State Governments to ensure due compliance with Union laws.
4. If the Legislatures of two or more states so resolve, Parliament can make laws with respect to any matter included in the State List relating to those states.

Which of the above statements describe the nature of Indian Federalism?

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

2 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

6 / 20

According to the Constitution of India, if the President so requires, it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister, but which has not been considered by the Council. This ensures

the status of the Prime Minister as the first among the equals.

collective responsibility.

the power of the President to nullify the decision of the Minister.

the inherent power of the Minister to take a decision independent of the Council of Ministers.

7 / 20

Which one of the following is not correct?

The executive power of the Union extends to the giving of directions to a state to protect the railways within the State.

Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to Public Acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State.

The Governor of a State may entrust to the Government of India any matter to which the executive power of the State extends.

The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by the Parliament

8 / 20

The accountability or responsibility of the Prime Minister and the Cabinet to the Lok Sabha is:

Indirect

At the time of elections

Intermittent

Direct, continuous and collective

9 / 20

Which of the following bodies are headed by the Prime Minister?
1. National Integration Council
2. National Water Resources Council
3. NITI Aayog
4. Inter-State Council
5. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1, 2, 3 and 4

3, 4 and 5

2, 3 and 4

1, 3, 4 and 5

10 / 20

The executive power of the Union is vested in the:

Prime Minister

Union Council of Ministers

President of India

Union Cabinet

11 / 20

. Consider the following statements:

The Parliament becomes competent to make law on a matter enumerated in the State List only if the:

1. Council of States passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds majority of the members present and voting that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter.
2. Council of States and House of the People, both passes a resolution that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter.
3. President gives the prior permission for such legislation.
4. Speaker of the House of the People in consultation with Chairman of the Council of States gives the prior permission for such legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

1, 2, 3 and 4

12 / 20

The surcharges on taxes and duties referred to in Articles 269 and 270 belong to which of the following category?

Tax levied by the Union of India but assigned to the States

Tax levied by the Union of India and assigned to the Centre

Tax levied by the Union of India and distributed between the Union and the States

Tax levied by the State and assigned to the State

13 / 20

In which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is the principle of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers enshrined?

Article 77

Article 75

Article 78

Article 74

14 / 20

12. Indian federation closely resembles:

(a) U.S.A.

(b) Canada

(d) Nigeria

15 / 20

Who of the following became the Prime Ministers after being Chief Ministers?

1. P.V. Narasimha Rao
2. Charan Singh
3. H.D. Deve Gowda
4. V.P. Singh
5. Morarji Desai

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

2, 3, 4 and 5

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

1, 2 and 4

2, 3 and 4

16 / 20

Which among the following is/are the feature(s) of a Federal State?

1. The powers of the Central and the State (Constituent Unit) Governments are clearly laid down.

2. It has an unwritten constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

17 / 20

9. Which one of the following is not an essential feature of the parliamentary system?

(b) Nominal head of state

(a) Fusion of the Executive and the Legislature

(d) Fixed tenure of the executive

18 / 20

"If any functionary under our constitution is to be compared with the US President, he is the Prime Minister and not the President of the Union". This statement is attributed to:

Jawaharlal Nehru

K.M. Munshi

B.R. Ambedkar

Rajendra Prasad

19 / 20

Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister?

Universal adult franchise

Parliamentary democracy

Federalism

Representative Legislature

20 / 20

The Constitution of India lays down that proposals for legislation are to be communicated to the President by the

Minister for Law

Minister for Parliamentary Affairs

Speaker of the Lok Sabha and Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Prime Minister

Your score is

Polity Test 7

S No	Topics	Questions
1	President	10
2	Vice-President	5
3	Emergency	5
	Total	20

1 / 20

Which one of the following statements is not correct? The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of five years.

The Vice-President of India can act as the President only for a maximum period of nine months.

The Vice-President of India is eligible for re-election.

The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of five years.

The Supreme Court of India has to look into all disputes with regard to the election of the Vice-President of India.

2 / 20

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Vice-President of India? He must be a Member of the Parliament.
1. He is elected by proportional representation.
2. He should not hold any other office of profit.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1 only

3 / 20

In case of declaration of financial emergency:

all the State Assemblies will be put under suspended animation and laws on the State List will be enacted by the Parliament.

the President may give such directions to the states as may be deemed necessary for economic recovery and salaries of officials may be temporarily reduced.

all Money Bills of the states will be considered and passed only by the Parliament.

all the State Governments will be dissolved and management of economy will be taken over by the Union Government.

4 / 20

Which of the following expenditures shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office. 1.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister and other expenditure relating to his office.
3. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States.
4. The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

1, 2 and 4

2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

1, 3 and 4

5 / 20

The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

Members of both Houses of the Parliament

Members of both Houses of the Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies

Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies

Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament

6 / 20

According to the Article 74 of the Constitution, which of the following statements relating to the advice tendered by Ministers to the President would be correct?

It cannot be inquired into in the High Courts.

It can be inquired into in all the courts.

It can be inquired into in the Supreme Court.

It shall not be inquired into in any court.

7 / 20

Who of the following vice-presidential candidates was elected unopposed?

K. R. Narayanan

Krishna Kant

Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

R. Venkataraman

8 / 20

Consider the following statements in respect of an Ordinance promulgated by the President of India during the recess of the Parliament:

1. Such an Ordinance may be withdrawn at any time by the President.
2. Such an Ordinance shall be laid before both the Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the Parliament, or before that period if disapproved by both the Houses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 only

Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

Both 1 and 2

9 / 20

Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the power to promulgate Ordinances lies with the President only.
2. The power to declare emergency in a State in India lies with the President only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

10 / 20

the inherent power of the Minister to take a decision independent of the Council of Ministers.

collective responsibility.

the power of the President to nullify the decision of the Minister.

the status of the Prime Minister as the first among the equals.

11 / 20

Which of the following veto powers is not possessed by the President of India?

Qualified Veto

Absolute Veto

Pocket Veto

Suspensive Veto

12 / 20

Consider the following statements:
Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India:
1. Requires written communication of the Union Cabinet to the President to that effect.
2. Can be issued for the whole of India or part thereof.
3. Lapses, if not approved by both Houses of Parliament within a month.
4. Requires a resolution, approving the proclamation passed by both Houses of Parliament only by a majority of the total membership of each House, and not less than 2/3rd members present and voting.
5. Once approved by the Parliament can last for six months.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 4 and 5

2, 3 and 4

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

13 / 20

When a Proclamation of Emergency is issued by the President under Article 352 of the Constitution of India:

Fundamental Rights are automatically suspended.

only the freedoms under Article 19 are suspended and other Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended.

the freedoms under Article 19 are automatically suspended and other Fundamental Rights can be suspended by an order of the President

the freedoms under Article 19 are automatically suspended and other Fundamental Rights, except those under Articles 20 and 21, can be suspended by an order of the President.

14 / 20

3. Dissolution of the local bodies.

Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 4

1, 3 and 4

2 and 3 only

15 / 20

Consider the following statements:

1. A Bill returned by the President for reconsideration does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
2. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A Bill under consideration of the Lok Sabha lapses when the Lok Sabha is prorogued.
4. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 2 only

3 and 4 only

16 / 20

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India provides that the Vice-President of India shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.
2. The Constitution of India has not fixed any emoluments for the Vice-President of India in that capacity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

2 only

17 / 20

Consider the following statements:

1. No ground has been mentioned in the constitution for the removal of Vice-President.
2. No resolution for the removal of Vice-President can be moved unless at least 21 days' advance notice has been given.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

18 / 20

Which of the following statements is the correct one?

War, external aggression, internal disturbance and armed rebellion are the grounds for proclaiming emergency.

The President proclaims emergency on the basis of any ground mentioned in Article 352 or possibility thereof.

Words “armed rebellion" were replaced by the word "war" by the 44th Amendment.

Actual existence of any one or more grounds mentioned in Article 352 is necessary for proclaiming emergency.

19 / 20

Consider the following statements:

The Supreme Court judgement in S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India has been interpreted to mean that the Governor can dismiss a Council of Ministers or the Chief Minister:
1. At his pleasure on his subjective estimate of the strength of the Chief Minister in the Assembly.
2. When the Legislative Assembly has expressed its want of confidence in the Council of Ministers.
3. When a measure of the Council of Ministers has been defeated on the floor of the Assembly.
4. When a censure motion against the Council of Ministers has been rejected in the Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

1 and 2 only

20 / 20

The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in:

Either House of the Parliament

A joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament

The Rajya Sabha alone

The Lok Sabha alon

Your score is