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Geography PYQ

CDS PYQ Basics Of Geography

 

S No Topics Questions
1 Basics Of Geography 11
Total 11

1 / 11

The four planets closest to the Sun are called

2 / 11

Timber vegetation is generally not found in which of the following regions ?

3 / 11

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Time Zone in India ? ->
1. There is one standard time for whole country.
2. Andaman and Nicobar Island and Lakshadweep Islands have different Time Zone
3. Indian Standard Time (IST) is five and half hours behind GMT.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4 / 11

An avalanche is a type of which one of the following disasters ?

5 / 11

The extent of damage caused by earthquake is not influenced by which one of the following ?

6 / 11

The atmosphere of Planet Venus is made up of thick and yellowish clouds of

7 / 11

Which one among the following planets has the largest number of known satellites ?

8 / 11

Which of the following groups of planets is termed as ‘gas planet’ as they are composed primarily of lighter ices liquids and gases ?

9 / 11

If it is 10:00 a.m at Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), then what will be the time at 90° E longitude ?

10 / 11

Consider the following statements about some planets in the solar system:
1. Mercury has no atmosphere
2. Venus has two moons
3. There is no land on Jupiter.
4. Rings of Saturn are composed of Lumps of ice and dust

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

11 / 11

Which of the following statements is/are correct ? ->
1. Angular velocity for all locations on the earth’s surface is the same while linear velocity varies
2. Linear velocity is maximum at the equator and minimum at the poles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Your score is

0%

CDS PYQ (Oceanography and Climatology)

 

S No Topics Questions
1 Climatology and Oceanography 28
Total 28

 

1 / 28

Rains caused by thunderstorm during the hot weather season (mid-march to mid-June) in Karnataka are called

2 / 28

Which one of the following region is an important supplier of citrus fruits?

3 / 28

Which one of the following is the most noticeable Characteristic of the Mediterranean climate?

4 / 28

Ozone layer, which absorbs the ultra-violet radiation, is found in which one of the following layers of the atmosphere ?

5 / 28

Which one of the following statements about the Coriolis force is not correct ?

6 / 28

Which one of the following countries does not have Tundra vegetation ?

7 / 28

Which one of the following statements with regard to ozone is not correct ?

8 / 28

The Isotherm Line, which divides India North-South in almost two equal parts in the month of January, is

9 / 28

Atmospheric condition are well-governed by humidity, which one among the following may best define humidity.

10 / 28

Which one of the following may be the true characteristic of cyclones?

11 / 28

Match list I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: -
List I                  List II
A. Cyclones        1. Western Australia
B. Hurricanes    2. South China Sea
C. Typhoons       3. Indian Ocean
D. Willy-willies   4. Atlantic Ocean
Code:

12 / 28

Which one of the following climate types (koppen’s Scheme) is best suited to describe the climate of the western fringe of Rajasthan ?

13 / 28

Which one of the following land surfaces has the highest albedo ?

14 / 28

Which of the following statements about inversion of temperature is/are correct ?
(a) Temperature increases with increasing altitude
(b) A long winter night with clear skies is an ideal situation.
(c) It is a short term phenomenon and is common all over the globe expect at the poles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

15 / 28

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
(Cloud form)         (Characteristic)
A. Cirrus                 1. Storm clouds
B. Cumulus            2. High fog “Low Ceiling”
C. Nimbostratus    3. Fair-weather clouds
D. Stratus                4. Entirely of ice particles

16 / 28

Consider the following characteristics of a cloud type:
1. They are born through convection
2. Only cloud type that can produce hail, thunder and lightning
3. They are large cauliflower-shaped towers, often ‘anvil tops’
Identity the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristics.

17 / 28

Consider the following statements on ‘fog’:
1. Fog is simply a cloud that forms close to the ground.
2. Radiation fog is associated with radiation cooling the land at Night.
3. Advection fog forms when moisture is blown over a cold surface and is chilled by contact.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?

18 / 28

Consider the following statements about clouds:
1. Two major forms of clouds are stratiform and cumuliform.
2. According to the altitude, clouds are classified as high clouds, middle clouds and low clouds
3. Stratus, nimbostratus and stratocumulus are types of high clouds.
4. Clouds having nimbo attached to their name produce precipitation
Which of the statements given above are correct ?

19 / 28

Which of the following is the correct order of clouds in ascending order (lowest to highest) of height from surface ? -
1. Cirrocumulus
2. Nimbostratus
3. Cirrus
4. Altostratus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

20 / 28

Identify the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristics:
1. High, thin, puffy white clouds of ice crystals that looks like ripples
2. They appear between 20000 feet and 40000 feet above the Earth’s surface
3. One of its types is called a ‘mackerel sky” because the clouds resemble large fish scales, especially when they are colored pink at sunset
Select the correct below:

21 / 28

Which of the following statements regarding barrier islands is/are correct ? ->
1. These are small chain of sand islands that from offshore, far from the coast.
2. Lagoons or shallower marshes separate the barrier islands from the mainland.
3. Such locations are hazardous for settlements because they are easily swept away by storms and hurricanes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

22 / 28

Which of the following statements regarding ice-cap climate is/are correct ?
1. In the Koeppen climate classification, the ice-cap climate is signified by the letter EF.
2. It is the Earth’s most severe climate, where the mean monthly temperature is never above o degree Celsius.
3. This climate is found in the Pir Panjal and the Great Himalayas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

23 / 28

Which of the following statements regarding Insolation is/are correct ?
1. Insolation is predominantly shortwave radiation, with wavelength in the range of 0.39 micrometer to 0.76 micrometer.
2. Insolation is evenly distributed across the Earth because of the Earth’s curved surface.
Select the correct answer using the code given bellow.

24 / 28

How can one determine the relative humidity in a particular day at a given place ?

25 / 28

Which one of the following indicates the Tropical Savannah climate ?

26 / 28

Which one of the following is not a resultant of the EI Nino Effect ?

27 / 28

Which one of the following is a cold ocean current ?

28 / 28

Which one of the following do not influence the ocean currents ?

Your score is

0%

CDS PYQ Geomorphology

 

S No Topics Questions
1 Geomorphology 16
Total 16

 

1 / 16

Which one of the following is a type of igneous rock ?

2 / 16

Which one of the following is not a fluvial landform ?

3 / 16

Which one of the following is not a major tectonic plate ?

4 / 16

Streams and rivers coming from the mountains deposit heavy materials of rocks and boulders in

5 / 16

Individual lava flows are normally only a few feet thick, but over a long period of time, repeated flows may build up a volcano. Such volcanoes are termed as:

6 / 16

A per pediment in a desert or semi-desert region is also known as:

7 / 16

Which one of the following sedimentary rocks has not been formed mechanically ?

8 / 16

‘Pingos’ are associated with one of the following process ?

9 / 16

Which one of the following processes leads to expansion of certain minerals as they take up water, causing additional stress in the rock ?

10 / 16

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists. -> CDS 2022(II)
List I List II
(Drainage Pattern of River) (Feature)
A. In sequent 1. Whose direction of flow is controlled by the rock structure
B. Consequent 2. No apparent reason why it follows the path it takes
C. Subsequent 3. Flow in the same direction as the consequent
D. Resequent 4. Whose course is determined by the original slope of the land
CODE:

11 / 16

Which one of the following is the other term used for ‘Focus’ in relation with an earthquake ?

12 / 16

Which one of the following landforms is/are formed by wind erosion ?

13 / 16

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ? -> CDS 2023(II)
Plateau Continent
1. Abyssinian : Africa
2. Patagonian : Australia
3. Anatolian : Asia
4. Iberian : North America
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

14 / 16

Identity the type of drainage pattern on the basis of the given characteristics:
1. It represents the most common pattern of streams and their tributaries
2. It occurs in areas of uniform rock type and regular slope
3. a map, or aerial photograph , shows a pattern like the veins on a leaf-smaller streams join the main stream at an acute angle
Select the correct answer.

15 / 16

Which of the following statements regarding river meanders is/are correct ? -> CDS 2024(I)
1. It is U-shaped bend in a river.
2. An extremely tight meander is called a gooseneck; It is likely to become a cutoff, or oxbow lake, after
a flood.
3. Tectonic uplift can cause a river to continue down cutting along its meandering course, producing incised or entrenched meanders.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

16 / 16

Which one of the following statements about primary waves of earthquakes is not correct

Your score is

0%

CDS PYQ Indian Geography

 

S No Topics Questions
1 Indian Geography 55
Total 55

 

1 / 55

Match list I wit List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List i                             List II
(Soil Type)           (Major Characteristic)
A. Oxisols                  1. Very rich in organic matter
B. Vertisols               2. Soil lacking horizons
C. Histosol                3. Very old and highly weathered
D. Entisols               4. Rich in clay content and highly basic
Code:

2 / 55

What is Inter-cropping?

3 / 55

In which one of the following States is jute not significantly cultivated?

4 / 55

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists?
List I                        List II
(Peak)                 (Name of Hill)
A. Anaimudi         1. Nilgiri
B. Doddabetta      2. Satpura
C. Dhupgarh          3. Aravali
D. Guru Shikhar   4. Annamalai
Code:

5 / 55

Which one of the following is not a geographical requirement for cultivation of cotton?

6 / 55

Which one of the following rivers takes a ‘U’ turn at Namcha Barwa and enters India?

7 / 55

If one plots the bank irrigation in India and superimposes it with map of well irrigation, one may find that the two are negatively related. Which of the following statements explain the
Phenomenon?

 

1. Tank irrigation predates well irrigation.
2. Tank irrigation is in the areas with impervious surface layers.
3. Well irrigation requires sufficient groundwater reserve
4. Other forms of irrigation are not available.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

8 / 55

Alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to clay. They are generally

9 / 55

Identity the type of soil on the basis of given characteristics:
1. They contain a large proportion of sodium, potassium and magnesium, and thus, they are infertile
2. Their structure ranges from sandy to loamy
3. They are more widespread in western Gujarat, deltas of the eastern coast and in Sunderban areas of West Bengal

10 / 55

There in an increase in forest cover area of India between 2011 and 2021. However, there is a decrease in forest cover area of India during the same period in

11 / 55

106. Which of the following statements is/are correct/
1. Vishakapatnam port is a land locked harbor.
2. Deendayal port is a tidal port.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

12 / 55

Consider the following clues about a State of India ?
1. It is known as ‘land of Red River and blue hills’.
2. It contains three of the six physiographic divisions of India.
3. It covers about 2.39 percent of total areas of the country
Identity the state on the basis of the given clues

13 / 55

Which one of the following states /UT has the largest area under Coral Reefs in India ?

14 / 55

Which of the following statements about the coasts of India is/are correct ?
1. The west Coast of India is a high rocky, retreating coast
2. The west coast of India is dominated by erosional landforms
3. The East Coast of India, however, is a low sedimentary coast exhibiting depositional forms.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

15 / 55

Consider the following statements about Karewas:
1. These are the lacustrine deposits of Pleistocene period.
2. These are found along the lower slopes of Pir Panjal.
3. Karewas are well known for the cultivation of saffron, almond and walnut.
How many of the above statements is/are correct:

16 / 55

Match list I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: -> CDS 2022(I)
List I List II
(Soil Type) (Salient characteristic)
A. Entisols 1. Soils having weakly or quickly developed horizons
B. Inceptisols 2. Weakly developed soils with no horizons
C. Histosol 3. These soils are very old and highly weathered
D. Oxisols 4. These soils have very high quantity of organic matter in the upper layers

17 / 55

Which one of the following states/ Union Territories has the highest percentage of forest area to the total geographical area ?

18 / 55

The distance between which two cities has been reduced by the Atal Tunnel ?

19 / 55

Which one of the following States is not prominent for plantation agriculture ?

20 / 55

Four persons are travelling to different States of India. To whom will you advise to protect oneself from blizzards ?

21 / 55

He Government wants to prepare plan drought prone areas of the country. Which one of the following regions will be predominantly focused ?

22 / 55

Who amongst the following will be at more risk with respect to the earthquake hazard zone specified by the Geological Survay of India ?

23 / 55

Inceptisols, Entisols, Vertisols and Mollisols are orders of which one of the following ?

24 / 55

Which one of the following States receives rainfall from both the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch of monsoon ?

25 / 55

Identify the crop on the basis of the following characteristics: -> CDS 2021 (I)
(1) It is a Kharif crop
(2) Aus, aman and Boro are its three different growing periods in an agricultural year.
(3) About one-fourth of the total cropped area of India is under its cultivation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

26 / 55

When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions into a lake or depression the pattern is known as

27 / 55

Aluminum is manufactured from

28 / 55

Aluminum is manufactured from

29 / 55

Arabica, Robusta and Liberica are varieties of

30 / 55

Identity the type of soil on the basis of the given characteristics: -> CDS 2021 (I)
1. They are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina
2. They are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
3. They are mainly found in Maharashtra Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.
Select the correct, answer from the given alternative:

31 / 55

Which one of the following tributaries of river Indus feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal project ? 

32 / 55

India’s territorial limit extends towards the sea up to

33 / 55

The largest geographical area of India is covered by which one of the following types of soils ?

34 / 55

Which one of the following Indian places receives minimum rainfall in a year ?

35 / 55

Consider the following statements relating to coal India Limited:
1. It is designated as a ‘Maha Ratna’ company under the Ministry of Coal
2 It is the single largest coal- producing company in the World.
3. The Headquarters of coal India Limited is located at Ranchi, Jharkhand
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

36 / 55

The shompens are the vulnerable tribal group of

37 / 55

Which one of the following river valleys of India is under the influence of intensive gully erosion?

38 / 55

Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India ?

39 / 55

Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India ?

40 / 55

Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India ?

41 / 55

Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India ?

42 / 55

Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India ?

43 / 55

Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India ?

44 / 55

Which one of the following longitudes is the standard meridian of India ?

45 / 55

D performs her train journey by the shortest route from Bengaluru to New Delhi. Which one of the
following rivers will she not cross while performing the journey ?

46 / 55

Which one of the following is a tributary of Barak River in Manipur ?

47 / 55

In which one of the following highlands of India can you find temperate forests called ‘Sholas’

48 / 55

The Indian desert also known as Marustahli is believed to be the sea during which one of the following eras ?

49 / 55

Which one of the following is not a mountain peak of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands ?

50 / 55

Indus river basin is extended up to

51 / 55

Consider the following characteristics of a soil type:
1. These soils consist of various proportions of sand, silt and clay
2. These soils contain adequate proportions of potash, phosphoric acid and lime
3. These soils can be further classified on the basis of their age.
Identify the type of soil on the basis of the given characteristics

52 / 55

Consider the following statements and identity the correct answer using the code given below: -> CDS 2023(I)
1. In a thermal power station, fuels such as oil, coal or natural gas are used to generate electricity.
2. Fuels are burned to heat water and turn it into steam, which goes through a tribune, which spins and
turns, generating electricity.

53 / 55

Which one of the following set of trees does not belong to Temperate Floral Zone of Himalaya ?

54 / 55

Which of the following statements regarding coconut production in Lakshadweep is/are correct ? -> CDS 2024(I)
1. Productivity per hectare is highest in India.
2. Oil content in nuts is highest in the world
Select the correct answer using the code given below;

55 / 55

On Which e following is National Waterway No. 2 Situated ?

Your score is

0%

CDS PYQ Geography Through Maps

 

S No Topics Questions
1 Geography through Maps 43
Total 43

 

1 / 43

Which one of the following is the largest fresh water lake in India?

2 / 43

Ten Degree Channel is found between: 

3 / 43

Which one of the following is considered as the deepest point of the oceans ?

4 / 43

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: -> CDS 2020 (II)

List-I                                                                  List-II

(Active Volcano)                                                         (Location)
A. Mount Merapi                                                           1. Hawaii

B. Sakurajima                                                                 2. Italy
C. Mount Vesuvius                                                        3. Japan
D. Mauna Loa                                                               4. Indonesia

5 / 43

Which one of the following countries is not located on the Tropic of Capricorn ?

6 / 43

Buenos Aires and Montevideo are situated across the banks of

7 / 43

hich one among the following Union Territories of India is the smallest in geographical area ?

8 / 43

Climax mine, the largest producer of molybdenum, is located in

9 / 43

Sea of Azov is connected to

10 / 43

Which one among the following is not a coral reef island ?

11 / 43

Which one of the following cities is closest to the Equator ?

12 / 43

Which one of the following mountains separates Black Sea and Caspian sea?

13 / 43

Which one of the following mountains separates Black Sea and Caspian sea?

14 / 43

Where are Jhumri Telaiya and Mandar hills situated?

15 / 43

Which one of the following Indian cities is not located on a river bank?

16 / 43

Which one of the following Indian States has no international boundary?

17 / 43

The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separately by which one of the following latitudes

18 / 43

Which one of the following is not correct about Sargasso Sea?

19 / 43

Which among the following countries of South America does the Tropic of Capricorn no pass through?

20 / 43

Which one of the following water bodies separates the Andaman and the Nicobar Islands ?

21 / 43

M wants to visit a place in a Union Territory, Which is located at 34° N and 77° E. Which one of the
Following Union Territories must he have planned to visit ?

22 / 43

Identify the State bon the basis of the following characteristics:
1. Tropic of cancer passes through the state.
2. The State has more north-south extension.
3. The State has international border with Bangladesh and Myanmar.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

23 / 43

D had recently visited Khardung La, Nubra Valley and several Buddhist Moanasteries. Which one of the following States / UT had she visited ?

24 / 43

S had witnessed contour bunding and contour ploughing while visiting one of the States in India.
Identity the State from the options given below.

25 / 43

Where are the Bermuda Islands Located ?

26 / 43

Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh is known for:

27 / 43

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
(List I)                                                                                                                     (List II)
(Lake)                                                                                                                       (State)
A. Kaliwali                                                                                                             1. Sikkim
B. Khajjar                                                                                                              2. Kerala
C. Kheceopalri                                                                                                      3. Himachal Pradesh
D. Vembanad                                                                                                       4. Tamil Nadu

28 / 43

Which types of vegetation will you find on the way as you travel from Bikaner to Konark by road by shortest distance ?

29 / 43

Consider the following statements about an Indian State:
1. It is well known globally for its variety of rocks and minerals
2. It has the largest deposits of Chrysotile Asbestos in the country.
3. The neelam Sanjiva Reddy Sagar Hydel Project is located in this State.
Identity the state from the following

30 / 43

Mount Thullier (642m) is an important mountain peak of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is located in:

31 / 43

In which one of the following States/ut, is the Lake Tsomgo located

32 / 43

Which of the following sets of states shares boundary with Telangana ?

33 / 43

Rani told her Friend that last year she did boating in four different lakes, namely, Loktak, Barapani,
Kolleru and Pulicat, Which of the Following States did she visit ?

34 / 43

The Tropic of cancer passes through hoe many coastal and land locked states of India, respectively ?

35 / 43

Vicky told his friends about his visit to Stewart Island, Bay of plenty and Hawke Bay, Which Country did Vicky Visit ?

36 / 43

What will be the correct sequence of cities on the bank of river Ganga if someone moves from west to east ?

37 / 43

Which one among the following states has the longest extension in North-South direction ?

38 / 43

Which one of the following Indian states has the longest coastline ?

39 / 43

Which one among the following is the highest mountain in Africa ?

40 / 43

Which one among the following State capitals is closest to the Equator ?

41 / 43

Which one of the following passes in not located In Indian Himalayan region ?

42 / 43

Which of the following statements regarding continent of Antarctica is/are correct ? -> CDS 2024(I)
1. It has the highest average elevation as compared to all other continents.
2. Mount Vinson in the highest peak of this continent
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

43 / 43

Which one among the following countries in not part of the Arabian Peninsula ?

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Highlight of the CDS Exam

Before going into detail about the exam pattern for the Combined Defence Services, a brief highlight of the exam is given in the table below:

Highlights of the CDS Exam 
Parameters Details
Number of Sections

Indian Military Academy (IMA) – 3 

Indian Naval Academy (INA) – 3

Air Force Academy (AFA) – 3

Officers Training Academy (OTA) – 2
Mode of Exam Offline
Total Marks of the Test 200 (Applicable for IMA, INA, AFA and OTA)
Types of Questions Objective type
Language of the paper Hindi and English
Duration 2 hrs

Exam Pattern for Combined Defence Service

The CDS Exam is conducted in two stages:

  1. Written Examination
  2. SSB Interview

The Services Selection Board (SSB) is an organization that assesses the candidates for becoming officers in the Indian Armed Forces. The board evaluates the suitability of the candidate for becoming an officer using an evaluation system that analyses personality, intelligence via interviews and tests.

It should be noted that the written format for IMA, INA, AFA is different from that of the Officer Training Academy

A breakdown of the written exam pattern is given in the following tables:

CDS Written Exam Pattern for IMA, INA and AFA
Subject Duration Marks allotted
English 2 hrs 100
General Knowledge 2 hrs 100
Elementary Mathematics 2 hrs 100

 

CDS Written Exam Pattern for OTA
Subject Duration Marks allotted
English 2 hrs 100
General Knowledge 2 hrs 100

The marking scheme of the CDS exam is given below:

  • For the incorrect answer, 1/3 marks are deducted
  • Candidates marking more than one option are treated as incorrect
  • If a question is left unanswered, there will be no negative marking

To know more in detail about the topics in each subject of the exam, be sure to visit the CDS Syllabus page

CDS Exam Pattern – Interview

Once the candidate has qualified and passed the written exam of the CDS. They will have to appear for the SSB interview.

Although the examination of CDS is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), the interview portion is conducted by the Services Selection Board. The SSB conducts interviews for both the CDS and NDA (National Defence Academy) exams.

The SSB Interview is conducted in three stages over a period of 5 days –

Stage I – Comprises Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests and Picture Perception Description Test (PP&DT)

Stage II – Consists of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and Conference. Only the candidates shortlisted in Stage I of SSB Interview are called for this stage.

Stage – III There are tasks including group discussion; group (military) planning exercises; progressive group tasks; small (half) group tasks; individual tasks (obstacles); group obstacle or command task.

This stage is conducted by the Group Testing Officer (GTO). An individual candidate interview is conducted along with the GTO and the interviewing officer. The interview is based on questionnaires.

On the fifth day, the final assessment is done by a panel of assessors who will examine the overall personality of the candidate. Following this, the results will be announced, and the selected candidates will undergo a medical examination at a military hospital.

Previous Year Questions

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